MCQs for MRCOphth II
 

1. True statements about the circle of least confusion include:

a. it is the clearest image that a spherocylindrical lens can produce

b. it is located at a point corresponding to the spheroequivalent of a
    spherocylindrical lens

c. it is in the mid point of the Sturm's interval

d. it is increased if the distance between the two focal lines of a
    spherocylindrical lens is increased

e. the shape of the circle of least confusion is influenced by the shape of
    the spherocylindrical lens


2. The following are true:

a. simple myope can be corrected fully with minus sphere only

b. simple myopic astigmatism can be corrected fully with a minus sphere
    lens and a minus cylindrical lens

c. compound myopic astigmatism can be corrected fully with a plus
    sphere lens and a minus cylinder

d. simple hyperopic astigmatism occurs when one principal meridian is on
    the retina and the other is behind the retina

e. mixed astigmatism occurs when one principal meridian is on the retina
    and the other is behind the retina

3. True statements about ultrasound include:
a. the ultrasound used in diagnosis has a frequency of greater
    than 20 kHz

b. piezoelectric effect is used to emit ultrasound as well as analysing
    the echo

c. ultrasound is propagated as a transverse wave through a medium

d. ultrasound travels faster through vitreous than the lens

e. ultrasound with longer wavelength penetrates the tissue deeper
    than one with shorter wavelength


4. The following are true about Hess's test:

a. ocular dissociation is necessary

b. it can be used to calculate the amount of ocular deviation

c. a visual acuity of better than 6/12 is essential for the testing

d. the eye with restricted movement usually has a smaller field on the the
    Hess's chart

e. it can be used to test the field of binocular single vision.

5. True statements about dissociated vertical deviation include:
a. it is unilateral in 90% of the cases

b. it is associated with infantile esotropia

c. it is caused by inferior oblique overaction

d. it can be diagnosed with Bielschowsky darkening wedge test

e. it can be demonstrated with Bagolini filter bar

6. The following about Fresnel's prism are true:
a. its power is determined the thickness of the base

b. the visual acuity is affected by the power of the prism

c. it is normal fitted to the front of the spectacle

d. the maximum prismatic power than an adult can tolerate is usually
    around 15 dioptres

e. dividing the strength of the prism between the two eyes improves the
    comfort of the patient


7. Regarding the fusional reserves:

a. the horizontal fusional reserve is higher than the vertical fusional reserve

b. the positive fusional reserve is higher for distance than near

c. the positive fusional reserve is affected by the subject's
    accommodative reserve

d. the horizontal fusional reserve decreases with age

e. the vertical fusional reserve is decreased in patient with reduced
   accommodative reserve

8. In the normal eye, resolution:
a. depends on cone separation

b. is 6/6 or better

c. depends on the size of the pupil

d. is about 10 minutes of arc

e. can be tested with the Sheridan-Gardner test

9. The vernier acuity (hyperacuity):
a. is the ability of  the eye to detects  two images placed close together

b. depends on the separation of cone

c. in normal eye is less than 8 seconds of arc

d. requires the presence of binocular single vision

e. is used when performing applanation tonometer

10. True statements about diffraction include:
a. diffraction is increased when light passes through a smaller than a
    bigger aperture

b. diffraction is increased with shorter than longer light wavelength

c. diffraction which occurs when the light passes through the pupil is
    referred to as Fraunhofer diffraction

d. produces an Airy's disc which affects the resolving power of the eye

e. produces an Airy's disc which is bigger in a smaller than a bigger pupil

11. Spasm of accommodation:
a. can masquerade myopia

b. results in presbyopia

c. occurs more frequently in hypermetropia

d. causes convergence insufficiency

e. can be alleviated by miotics


12. The following are true about schematic eye:

a. it contains six cardinal pints

b. the cornea has a higher refractive power than the lens

c. the cornea has a higher refractive index than the lens

d. the anterior focal point is longer than the posterior point

e. the posterior lens surface has a larger radius of curvature than the
    anterior lens surface

13. Image distortion from a cylindrical lens can be minimized by:
a. decreasing the vertex distance

b. by reducing the cylinder power

c. using a toric contact lens

d. using plus cylinder lens

e. rotating the axis towards 90 or 180 degrees

14. During streak retinoscopy, the following are true about the point of
       neutrality:
a. the reflex moves rapidly

b. the reflex becomes dimmer

c. moving towards the patient produces against movement in all meridians

d. the retinal and the peephole of the retinoscope forms the conjugate
    points

e. the retinoscopic refraction is complete


15. Compared with soft contact lens, rigid gas permeable contact lens:

a. is suitable for intermittent wear

b. gives a better vision

c. has a greater diameter

d. is more resistant to wear and tear

e. is not suitable for keratoconus


 

16. Regarding accommodation:
a. half of the amplitude should always remain in reserve to avoid fatigue

b. the accommodative amplitude decreases by about 1.5D every 4
    years between the age of 40 and 48

c. accommodation decreases with age because the zonules become
    less elastic

d. movement of the cornea occurs during accommodation

e. accommodation can not occur in the absence of convergence

17. Stenopaeic slit:

a. is used to determine the power of the sphere

b. can determine the best vision in a certain axis

c. can help determine the position of an iridotomy in corneal
    scarring

d. can affect the visual acuity by the width due to the effect of
    diffraction

e. in a patient with astigmatism can improve the vision


18. The following are true about Hertel's exophthalmometer:

a. the measurement may be affected by the presence of strabismus

b. the foot plate should rest on the lateral canthus rather than the
    orbital for accurate reading

c. patients of African origin has a higher normal reading than European

d. a difference in readings between the two eyes of up to 5 mm is
    normal in up to 50% of the population

e. can be used to monitor the progress of Grave's eye disease

19. The astronomical telecsope:

a. has an eye piece which has minus power

b. the separation of the eye piece and the objective piece is the sum
    of the focal lengths

c. the secondary focal point of the objective lens falls at the primary
    focal point of the eyepiece

d. the image is erect

e. the emergent rays are parallel

20. Myopic shift occurs in:

a. keratoconus

b. spasm of the ciliary body

c. staphyloma

d. lens subluxation

e. brittle diabetes

21. The following are true about magnifying glasses:

a. the angular magnification of a hand-held magnifier with a power
    of +20.00D is 5 X

b. Fixed stand magnifiers are designed to be used with a reading add

c. according to Kestenbaum's rule, a low vision patient with a Snellen
    acuity of 6/36 will required +6.00D add for reading

d. the visual field is increased by increasing the lens-eye position

e. the hand-held magnifier is normally placed 25 cm from the object.


22. The following diseases are associated with myopia:

a. Stargardt's disease

b. Stickler's syndrome

c. juvenile retinoschisis

d. Marfan's syndrome

e. congenital glaucoma


23. The range of stereoscopic vision as measured by the following tests
      are true:

a. 3000 to 60 seconds of arc with the Frisby's test

b. 3000 to 40 seconds of arc with the Titmus test

c. 480 to 15 seconds of arc with the TNO test

d. 1200 to 600 seconds of arc with the Lang stereostest

e. 3000 to 15 seconds with the synotophore


24. With regard to the visual field:

a. lead poisoning causes cecocentral scotoma

b. tobacco amblyopia typically produces central scotoma

c. optic disc pit causes arcuate scotoma

d. retinoschisis causes binasal hemianopia

e. optic neuritis can cause homonymous hemianopia


25. True statements about ametropia include:

a. myopia is commoner among school children than pre-school children

b. the incidence of hypermetrope increases with age

c. the antero-posterior diameter of the eye ball is increased in axial
   myopia

d. in refractive hypermetrope the refractive power of the eye is too
    strong

e. a hypermetropic patient is unable to focus on as a near a point as
    a myopic patient

26. True statements about the lens effectivity include:

a. it is equivalent to the back vertex power

b. it is affected the index of refraction of the lens material

c. in a hypermetropic patient wearing weak plus lenses, the effective
    power of the lens can be increased by moving the lens forward

d. a patient who is fully corrected with -10.00D spectacles at a vertex
    distance of 10 mm can be corrected a -9.00 D soft contact lens

e. a patient who is fully corrected with -10.00 D spectacles at a
    vertex distance of 10 mm will need a -15..00 D lens if the
    spectacles are now moved to 20 mm away from the eye.


27. The following are true when a patient changes from spectacle to contact
       lens:

a. more accommodation is required when a myope changes from
    spectacle to contact lenses

b. less accommodation is required when a hypermetrope changes from
    spectacles to contact lenses

c. a myope with esophoria at near will experienced increased esophoria
    when changes from spectacles to contact lens

d. a myope requires more fusional convergence when using spectacle
    than using contact lenses

e. contact lenses are better than spectacles for presbyopic myopia

28. The following are true about indirect ophthalmoscopy:

a. the aerial image of the retina is formed between the subject's eye and
    the condensing lens

b. the aerial image of the retina is an inverted real image

c. in an emmetrope, a 30D condensing lens produces a larger retinal
    images than a 20D lens

d. in an emmetrope, a 30D condensing lens gives a larger visual field
    than a 20D lens

e. for a given condensing lens, the aerial image of a hypermetropic retina
    is larger than a myope.

29. The following are true about ophthalmoscope:

a. the image is laterally transposed with the indirect ophthalmoscope

b. the teaching mirror on the indirect ophthalmoscope works on the
    principles of total internal reflection

c. the magnification of the retina with the direct ophthalmsscope is about
    15X

d. refractive error has a more significant effect with the direct
    ophthalmoscope

e. the field of view is larger with he indirect ophthalmoscope

30. With regard to Bagolini's glasses:

a. the test is only useful for adult

b. contain two lenses one with striation set at 90 degrees and the other
    at 180 degrees

c. amblyopia in one eye always result in perception of only one line

d. a cross is only seen in subjects with binocular single vision

e. can be used to test the presence of abnormal retinal correspondence
    when combined with cover / uncover testing


 
 
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