Multiple Choice Questions on
                   Medical Retina

              (click the number for the answers)

 

        1. True statements about exudative vitreoretinopathy include:

a. it is an autosomal recessive disorder

b. it has a fundal appearance similar to patients with
    retinopathy of prematurity

c. the main cause of visual loss is retinal detachment

d. peripheral retinal neovascularization is a common
    features

e. the condition has a relentless progression leading
    to severe visual loss.

 


2. In AZOOR (acute zonular occult outer retinopathy):

a. photopsia is a recognized feature

b. visual loss is caused by retinal necrosis

c. fluorescein angiogram is useful for diagnosis

d. most affected patients are over the age of 40

e. oral prednisolone is the treatment of choice
 


3. In PIC (primary idiopathic choriodopathy):

a. myopia is an association

b. more male than female are affected

c. vitritis is common

d. viral prodrome is common

e. both eyes are affected in 25% of cases

 

4. The following are true about IPCV (idiopathic polypoidal
     choriodal vasculopathy):

a. it is seen exclusively in patients of African origin.

b. it causes recurrent vitreous haemorrhage

c. it has a better visual prognosis than age-related
    macular degeneration

d. the condition is characterized by dilated choroidal
    is best seen with indocyanine green angiography

e. the lesions respond well to laser treatment.
 
 

5. Stickler's syndrome:

a. is an autosomal dominant condition

b. is associated with retinal detachment in 20% of the
    patients

c. shows abnormal uvula

d. is associated with pigmentation along the peripheral
    retinal vessels

e. has abnormal type II collagen
 
 

6. The differences between ARN (acute retinal necrosis) and PORN
     (progressive outer retinal necrosis) include:

a. ARN is associated with herpes simplex virus but not
    PORN

b. ARN has a worse visual prognosis than PORN

c. ARN is associated with AIDS but not PORN

d. retinal detachment is common in ARN but not in
    PORN

e. vitritis is more severe in ARN than in PORN
 
 

7. True statements about vigabatrin include:

a. it is the first line of treatment in patient with petit mal

b. it is a GABA transaminase inhibitors

c. it causes vortex keratopathy

d. it causes visual field defect in 30% of users

e. stopping the vigabatrin can reverse the visual field
    loss
 
 

8. Oguchi's disease:

a. is an autosomal dominant condition

b. is characterized by stationary night blindness

c. is associated with colour blindness

d. is characterized by Mizuo-Nakamura phenomenon

e. causes significant visual loss before the age of 50
 
 

9. Retinal crystals are seen in the use of:

a. tamoxifen

b. hydroxychloroquine

c. canthaxanthin

d. desferrioxamine

e. magnesium silicate
 
 

10. In retinopathy caused by shaken baby syndrome:

a. the patient is usually between the age of 3 and 5
    years of age

b. the retinopathy may resemble central retinal vein
    occlusion

c. neurological damage is common

d. skull fracture is always present

e. the visual prognosis is good


 

11. The following signs favour the diagnosis of central retinal artery occlusion
       rather than ophthalmic artery occlusion:

a. the presence of cherry red spot

b. the presence of relative afferent pupillary defect

c. reduction of both a and b wave on the electroretinogram (ERG)

d. delayed choroidal circulation in fluorescein angiography

e. absence of pigmentary changes in the posterior segment
 
 

12. The following conditions can give rise to the clinical appearance of
       cystoid macular oedema but without fluorescein angiographic evidence of
       late fluorescein leakage:

a. epiretinal membrane

b. Irvine-Gass syndrome

c. juvenile retinoschisis

d. nicotinic acid maculopathy

e. Goldman-Favre syndrome
 
 

13. The following retinal findings are associated with rhegmatogenous retinal
      detachment:

a. paving stone degeneration

b. cystic retinal tuft

c. pars plana cyst

d. congenital hypertrophy of retinal pigment retinal epithelium

e. meridonal folds

14. Features of acute macular neuroretinopathy include:

a. paracentral scotoma

b. mild vitritis

c. presence of a triangular shape dark lesion in the macula

d. abnormal electroretinogram

e. profound visual loss with only 5% recover 6/36 vision


 

15. In von Hippel-Lindau's disease:

a. retinal angioma is seen in 50% of the patients

b. angioma of the disc may mimic choroidal neovascularization.

c. any retinal angioma should be treated early as spontaneous
    regression is rare

d. treatment of the retinal angioma can give rise to subretinal
    exudation

e. the main cause of visual loss is exudative maculopathy

 

16. True statements about Stargardt's disease include:

a. the majority of the cases are inherited in an autosomal
    dominant pattern

b. the condition is symptomatic in the first or second decade of life

c. abnormal red-green colour vision is common

d. histopathology reveals the presence of subretinal lipofuscin
    substance

e. macular oedema is a common cause of visual loss
 
 

17. In Wyburn-Mason's syndrome:

a. is an X-linked inheritance

b. the fundal appearance is caused by arteriovenous
    communication

c. exudative maculopathy is the main cause of visual loss

d. skull X-ray reveals tram-line calcification

e. visual field defect occurs in one third of the patient


 

18. The following statements are true:

a. electroretinogram is diagnostic of Stargardt's disease

b. amplitude of electroretinogram is reduced in carriers of
    choroideremia

c. electro-oculogram light peak to dark trough ratio is normal
    in adult onset foveomacular dystrophy

d. electroretinogram is diagnostic of Leber's congenital amaurosis

e. electroretinogram is useful in detecting carrier of X-linked
     retinitis pigmentosa


 

19. Bietti's crystalline dystrophy:

a. is commoner in females than males

b. causes choroidal atrophy

c. has abnormal crystalline deposits in the cornea and lymphocytes

d. produces crystalline deposits in all layers of the retina

e. is associated with abnormal electroretinogram
 


20. The following mucopolysaccharidosis are associated with pigmentary
       retinopathy:

a. Hunter's syndrome

b. Sanfilippo's syndrome

c. Scheie's syndrome

d. Morateaux-Lamy's syndrome

e. Sly's syndrome


 

21. The following conditions are associated with an optically empty vitreous
       and peripheral pigmentary changes:

a. Jansen's disease

b. Wagner's disease

c. X-linked retinoschisis

d. Favre-Goldmann's syndrome

e. Kearn-Sayre's syndrome
 
 

22. The following statements are true about Jansen's disease and Wagner's
      disease:

a. both conditions have autosomal dominant inheritance

b. both conditions are associated with increased retinal detachment
    rate

c. the ERG are reduced in both conditions

d. the EOG are normal in both conditions

e. high myopia are common in both conditions
 
 

23. Features of macroaneurysms include:

a. more common in women than men

b. more common in the temporal arcade than the nasal arcade

c. retinal artery occlusion

d. occurs in IRVAN syndrome

e. progressive enlargement and therefore early treatment with
    treatment with laser photocoagulation is recommended
 
 

24. In carcinoma associated retinopathy (CAR):

a. the condition is a paraneoplastic syndrome

b. colour vision and night blindness are typical presentation

c. melanoma is the most common type of carcinoma seen

d. autoantibodies are seen in the blood

e. plasmaphoresis is useful in restoring the visual function
 
 

25. Deafness and pigmentary retinopathy are seen in the following conditions:

a. Usher's syndrome

b. congenital rubella

c. congenital syphilis

d. Hunter's syndrome

e. Refsum's syndrome
 
 

26. Norrie's disease has the following features:

a. mental retardation

b. histology of the retina reveals rosette formation

c. X-linked inheritance

d. deafness

e. leukocoria which may be mistaken for retinoblastoma

 

27. In X-linked retinoschisis:

a.the splitting of the retina occurs at the level of inner plexiform
   layer

b. electrophysiology reveals negative ERG

c. the main cause of visual loss is recurrent retinal detachment

d. DNA analysis is useful in detecting carrier of the condition

e. myopia is common
 
 

28. In ETDRS (Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study) significant
      macular oedema is defined as:

a. hard exudates within 500um of the fovea

b. retinal thickening within 500um of the fovea

c. macular staining in fluorescein angiography

d. retinal thickening greater than one disc area in size and within
    one disc diameter of the centre of the fovea

e. macular haemorrhage within 500um of the fovea

 

29. The following are true regarding the recommendations of the Branch
       Retinal Vein Occlusion Study for patient with branch retinal vein
       occlusion:

         a. fluorescein angiography should be performed within four weeks
             of the onset of branch retinal vein occlusion

b. presence of more than 5 disc diameter of ischaemia should be
    treated  with pan-photocoagulation

c. macular oedema should be treated within 2 months of the onset
    of branch retinal vein occlusion

d. macular laser is useful in patient who has macular ischaemia

e. 30% of branch retinal vein occlusion develops
    neovascularization
 
 

30. The following are the findings from the Diabetes Control and Complications
       Trial:

a. tight glycaemia control reduces the progression of diabetic
    retinopathy in both insulin and non-insulin dependent diabetic

b. the need for macular laser treatment is decreased in well-
    controlled  group

c. worsening of the retinopathy can occur during the initial phase
    of tight control

d. attack of hypoglycaemia is increased in tightly controlled group

e. the incidence of cataract is reduced.

 

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