1. The following visual field defects are typically seen in primary open angle glaucoma:

a. centrocecal scotoma

b. nasal step

c. central scotoma

d. paracentral scotoma

e. altitudinal field loss

2. Early signs of glaucomatous damage include:
a. splinter haemorrhage of the optic disc

b. glaucoflecken

c. vertical elongation of the cup

d. loss nerve fibre layer

e. peripapillary atrophy

3. Static perimetry include:
a. Lister perimeter

b. Goldmann perimeter

c. tangent screen

d. Octopus

e. Humphrey

4. The following are direct gonio lenses:
a. Koeppe

b. Goldmann

c. Thorpe

d. Zeiss

e. Barkan

5. In pigmentary dispersion syndrome:

a. the pigments is caused by the release of melanin from
    the anterior surface of the iris

b. the incidence of affected male to female is 5:1

c. peripupillary retroillumination is a feature

d. heterochromia can occur

e. latanoprost should be avoided as it increases the release
    of pigments


6. Blood in Schlemm's canal is seen in:

a. Sturge-Weber's syndrome

b. carotid-cavernous fistula

c. angle recession glaucoma

d. hypotony

e. neurofibromatosis


7. The following are true about lens induced glaucoma:

a. laser iridotomy is ineffective against pharcomorphic

b. phacolytic glaucoma is characterized by blockage of the
    trabecular meshwork by protein laden marcophages

c. phacolytic glaucoma typically occurs following cataract

d. phacolytic glaucoma is associated with Morgagnian

e. phacoanaphylactic glaucoma is associated with
    granulomatous inflammation


8. In a patient with angle recession glaucoma, gonioscopy may reveal:

a. separation of the ciliary body from its attachment to the
    scleral spur

b. increased visibility of the scleral spur

c. torn iris process

d. marked variation in the ciliary body width in different
    quadrant of the same eye

e. new vessels at the angle

9. In primary congenital glaucoma:

a. the incidence is 1:12,500 births

b. the corneal diameter is usually greater than 8 mm

c. gonioscopy reveals iris hypoplasia

d. the cup: disc ratio is greater than 0.3

e. males are more commonly affected than females


10. Sampaolesi's line:

a. is a pigmented line anterior to Schwalbe's line

b. occurs in pseudoexfoliation syndrome

c. is seen in pigment dispersion syndrome

d. occurs in iris melanoma

e. is seen in siderosis bulbi


11. In uveitic glaucoma:

a. pilocarpine is the treatment of choice in patient who can
    not take beta blockers

b. girls with pauciarticular juvenile rheumatoid arthritis are
    more likely to develop glaucoma than their male

c. simple trabeculectomy is associated with high failure

d. iridocyclitis is often associated with low rather than high
    intraocular pressure

e. iris bombe is a common complication of
    Posner-Schlossman syndrome


12. In Humphrey automated perimeter, the following definition are true:

a. a false-negative response: failure to respond to a
    suprathreshold stimulus at a location that the patient
    would be expected to see

b. fixation loss: occurs when the patient responds to a
    target shown at his blind spot

c. high positive rate is seen in trigger happy patient

d. short term variation is greater in glaucomatous than
    normal population

e. short term variation refers to change in sensitivity when
    the same area is retested.

13. The following glaucoma are associated with bilateral primary abnormalities of the corneal endothelium:

a. Axenfeld's anomaly

b. Peter's anomaly

c. Cogan-Reese syndrome

d. posterior polymorphous membraneous dystrophy

e. essential iris atrophy


14. True statements about topical beta blockers include:

a. 10% of patients do not show therapeutic response

b. therapeutic response is reduced in patients on systemic
    beta-blockers use

c. the additive effect on glaucoma is increased if it is
    combined with topical adrenaline than with topical

d. betaxolol is more effective than timolol in lowering
    intraocular pressure

e. bradycardia is less with carteolol than timolol


15. The risk of developing steroid-induced glaucoma is increased in the following conditions:

a. myopes

b. patients with a history of primary open angle glaucoma

c. history of angle closure glaucoma

d. diabetes mellitus

e. posterior synechiae


16. The following are true about laser peripheral iridotomies:

a. Nd:YAG laser requires fewer application compared
    with argon laser

b. bleeding is less common with argon than Nd:YAG laser

c. late closure of the iridotomies is commoner with argon
    than Nd:YAG laser

d. iris oedema is commoner with argon than Nd:YAG

e. pupillary distortion is commoner with argon than
    Nd:YAG laser


17. True statements about systemic acetazolamide include:

a. it should be avoided in patients allergic to sulphonamides

b. it is associated with metabolic acidosis

c. it is associated with renal calculi

d. it causes transient myopia

e. it should be avoided in patient with hepatic


18. The following are true about aqueous drainage devices:

a. all contain a silicone tube attached to a synthetic plate

b. corneal decompensation is a known complication

c. Molteno's tube contains pressure sensitive device

d. post-operative hypotony is commoner with Ahmed's
    valve than Molteno's tube

e. Krupin's valve contains pressure sensitive valve


19. Regarding anti-metabolites:

a. they are applied to the scleral flap during trabeculectomy

b. they increase the incidence of post-operative

c. they inhibit DNA synthesis and therefore cellular

d. 5-fluorouracil is more likely to cause hypotony than
    mitomycin C

e. mitomycin C is associated with a higher incidence of
    wound leak than 5-fluorouracil


20. Apraclonidine:

a. is an alpha 2 agonist

b. causes conjunctival hyperaemia

c. causes increased uveoscleral outflow

d. produces miosis

e. causes lid retraction


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