Past MRCOphth/MRCS questions: 11
1.    Corneal sensation:
a. is always decreased in neurofibromatosis
b. corneal hyperaesthesia is a form of diabetic sensory 
    neuropathy, and is seen in patients with proliferative 
    diabetic retinopathy
c. neuropathic keratopathy is a contraindication for 
    performing laser panretinal photocoagulation in eyes 
    with proliferative diabetic retinopathy
d. is reduced following herpes zoster keratitis
e. is reduced by prolonged hard contact lens wear

2. Pigmentary glaucoma:

a. typically occurs in patients from 20 to 50 years of age
b. there is often a positive family history of pigmentary 
c. the onset is usually rapid with corneal oedema and 
    blurring of vision
d. pigmentary glaucoma is commonly caused by diabetes 
e. is often seen in high myopes with shallow anterior 

3. In central retinal vein occlusion:

a. there may be a reversible shallowing of the anterior 
    chamber following vein occlusions, sufficient to cause 
    angle closure glaucoma
b. neovascular glaucoma usually develop within five 
    weeks of the development of central vein occlusion
c. the neovascular glaucoma that occurs secondary to 
    occlusion of the central retinal vein is best treated by an 
d. neovascular glaucoma is best treated with cycloplegic 
    agents and steroid
e. the pupillary light reflex is not useful in the assessment 
    of retinal ischaemia

4. In glaucoma:

a. visual field loss may be aggravated by systemic 
b. an arcuate scotoma can be increased by artificial 
    elevation of the intraocular pressure
c. size and depth of cupping of the disc is always related 
    to the field defects
d. there may be arteriorsclerotic changes in nutrient 
    vessels 1-2 mm behind the optic nerve head
e. nasal step usually precedes arcuate scotoma

5. Pilocarpine is:

a. a lactone of pilocarpine acid
b. a contractor of ciliary muscle and sphincter
c. more effective as its concentration is increased
d. useful in the treatment of malignant glaucoma
e. the first line of treatment of open angle glaucoma in 30 
    years old

6. Chronic retinal detachments:

a. are usually mobile
b. may show high water marks
c. are associated with retinal cysts
d. may be associated with subretinal fibrosis
e. causes shrinkage of the globe

7. Proliferative vitreoretinopathy:

a. is an uncommon cause of failure in retinal detachment 
b. Grade C may involve all 4 quadrants
c. Grade D2 implies that the optic disc is visible
d. is more commonly with larger retinal tear
e. is unlikely to be helped by surgery

8. Pulsation of orbital contents may occur in:

a. orbital varix
b. carotid cavernous fistula
c. neurofibromatosis
d. thyrotoxicosis
e. blow out fracture of the orbital roof

9. Angoid streaks are associated with:

a. sickle cell anaemia
b. pseudoexfoliation
c. Marfan's syndrome
d. myopic degeneration
e. tuberous sclerosis

10. With regard to trauma:

a. in a Le Fort type I fracture, fracture lines are found 
    through the maxilla, orbital floor and lateral wall of the 
b. following a blunt injury with hyphaema some degree of 
    angle recession will be evident in approximately 5% of 
c. topical steroid drops should be used to suppress 
    collagenase activity during the second week following 
    an alkaline burn
d. the second commonest site of blow out fracture of the 
    orbit is the roof of the orbit
e. iron containing intraocular foreign bodies must be 
    removed within 12 hours of injury if siderosis bulbi is to 
    be prevented
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