1. Corneal sensation:
a. is always decreased in neurofibromatosis
b. corneal hyperaesthesia is a form of diabetic sensory
neuropathy, and is seen in patients with proliferative
diabetic retinopathy
c. neuropathic keratopathy is a contraindication for
performing laser panretinal photocoagulation in
eyes
with proliferative diabetic retinopathy
d. is reduced following herpes zoster keratitis
e. is reduced by prolonged hard contact lens wear
2. Pigmentary glaucoma:
a. typically occurs in patients from 20 to 50 years of age
b. there is often a positive family history of pigmentary
glaucoma
c. the onset is usually rapid with corneal oedema and
blurring of vision
d. pigmentary glaucoma is commonly caused by diabetes
mellitus
e. is often seen in high myopes with shallow anterior
chambers
3. In central retinal vein occlusion:
a. there may be a reversible shallowing of the anterior
chamber following vein occlusions, sufficient to
cause
angle closure glaucoma
b. neovascular glaucoma usually develop within five
weeks of the development of central vein occlusion
c. the neovascular glaucoma that occurs secondary to
occlusion of the central retinal vein is best treated
by an
iridectomy
d. neovascular glaucoma is best treated with cycloplegic
agents and steroid
e. the pupillary light reflex is not useful in the assessment
of retinal ischaemia
4. In glaucoma:
a. visual field loss may be aggravated by systemic
hypotension
b. an arcuate scotoma can be increased by artificial
elevation of the intraocular pressure
c. size and depth of cupping of the disc is always related
to the field defects
d. there may be arteriorsclerotic changes in nutrient
vessels 1-2 mm behind the optic nerve head
e. nasal step usually precedes arcuate scotoma
5. Pilocarpine is:
a. a lactone of pilocarpine acid
b. a contractor of ciliary muscle and sphincter
c. more effective as its concentration is increased
d. useful in the treatment of malignant glaucoma
e. the first line of treatment of open angle glaucoma in 30
years old
6. Chronic retinal detachments:
a. are usually mobile
b. may show high water marks
c. are associated with retinal cysts
d. may be associated with subretinal fibrosis
e. causes shrinkage of the globe
7. Proliferative vitreoretinopathy:
a. is an uncommon cause of failure in retinal detachment
surgery
b. Grade C may involve all 4 quadrants
c. Grade D2 implies that the optic disc is visible
d. is more commonly with larger retinal tear
e. is unlikely to be helped by surgery
8. Pulsation of orbital contents may occur in:
a. orbital varix
b. carotid cavernous fistula
c. neurofibromatosis
d. thyrotoxicosis
e. blow out fracture of the orbital roof
9. Angoid streaks are associated with:
a. sickle cell anaemia
b. pseudoexfoliation
c. Marfan's syndrome
d. myopic degeneration
e. tuberous sclerosis
10. With regard to trauma:
a. in a Le Fort type I fracture, fracture lines are found
through the maxilla, orbital floor and lateral wall
of the
orbit
b. following a blunt injury with hyphaema some degree of
angle recession will be evident in approximately
5% of
cases
c. topical steroid drops should be used to suppress
collagenase activity during the second week following
an alkaline burn
d. the second commonest site of blow out fracture of the
orbit is the roof of the orbit
e. iron containing intraocular foreign bodies must be
removed within 12 hours of injury if siderosis bulbi
is to
be prevented