Test 14  (Instruments)
1. The direct ophthalmoscope:
a. gives an angular magnification of 15X

b. gives a real erect image

c. makes the disc of a myope appears larger than that of 
    a hypermetrope

d. makes the disc of a hypermetrope larger than that of an
    emmetrope

e. is better than indirect ophthalmoscope in detecting
    diabetic maculopathy
 


 
 

2. When using a direct ophthalmoscope, the field of view:
a. is about 6 degrees 

b. is smaller than that through an indirect ophthalmoscope

c. is larger in an eye dilated with mydriatic

d. is larger in a myope compared with a hypermetrope

e. is larger when the observer moves towards the patient
 


 
 

3. The image formed by an indirect ophthalmoscope:
a. is upside down

b. is real

c. is laterally inverted

d. is not affected by the refractive state of the patient

e. is formed between the observer and the condensing lens
 


a
a

4. In indirect ophthalmoscopy, the field of view is affected by:
a. size of the patient's pupil

b. size of the observer's pupil

c. diameter of the condensing lens

d. power of the condensing lens

e. the refractive state of the observer
 


 


5. The advantages of indirect ophthalmoscope over direct 
    ophthalmoscope include:

a. binocular view

b. larger field of view

c. higher magnification

d. erect image

e. the instrument is smaller size
 


 
 

6. Regarding the condensing lenses used in indirect ophthalmoscope:
a. it is usually aspheric to reduce aberration

b. the image formed is located at or near the first principal
    focus of the condensing lens

c. the stronger the condensing lens used the higher the 
    angular magnification

d. the stronger the condensing lens used the larger the field
    of vision

e. when deliver laser photocoagulation through the 
    condensing lens, the stronger the condensing lens the
     larger the laser spot magnification
 


 
 
7. During indirect ophthalmoscopy:
a. observer needs to accommodate to see clearly

b. image size in emmetrope remains the same  irrespective 
    of the position of the condensing lens

c. image size in myope increases when the condensing lens
    moves towards the eye of the patient

d. image size in hypermetrope decreases when the 
    condensing lens moves towards the eye of the patient

e. image from myopic retina always falls within the second 
    principal focus of the condensing lens
 


 


8. The following are true about the retinoscope:

a. two mirror systems are used: the plane mirror and the
    convex mirror

b. in the UK, most retinoscope gives a plane mirror effect 
    when the condensing lens is moved down the shaft of 
    the instrument

c. scissors shadows are usually seen in patient with widely
    dilated pupil

d. the speed of the reflex increases as the neutralization 
    point is near

e. a myope who accommodates excessively during 
    retinoscopy will result in a more myopic refraction
 


 
 

9. When using the plane mirror technique during retinoscopy:
a. a 'with' movement is neutralized with a plus lens

b. an 'against' movement is neutralized with a minus lens

c.  a 'with' movement always indicates hypermetropia

d. an 'against' movement always indicates myopia

e. the neutral point occurs when the patient's far-point 
    coincides with the observer's nodal point
 


a
a

10. The keratometer:
a. uses the cornea as a convex mirror in the measurement of corneal curvature

b. measures only the central 3 mm of the cornea

c. can be misleading in patients who have had corneal 
    transplantation

d. doubles the central image size to overcome the effect 
    of eye movement

e. is more important in fitting soft contact lens than rigid 
    gas permeable contact lens
 


a
a

11. The following are true about the keratometer:
a. in the Javal-Schiøtz instrument, the object size is fixed

b. in the Javal-Schiøtz instrument, each step of the mire is 
    equivalent to 1/2 a dioptre

c. Wollaston prism is used in Javal-Schiøtz instrument

d. von Helmholtz instrument uses rotating glass plates to
    double the size of the image

e. the power of the cornea is equal to 337.5 divided by 
    the radius of curvature in mm.
 


 
 

12. The slit-lamp:
a. is a low powered binocular compound microscope

b. contains prisms that shorten and invert the image 

c. incorporates Galilean telescopes that are used to
   magnify the image

d. visualizes vitreous best with blue light

e. can be used to perform Watzke's sign
 


 
 

13. The following are true about the techniques used in slit-lamp:
a. uncoupling of the microscope and light source is needed
    in sclerotic illumination

b. specular illumination is best for visualizing the 
    endothelium

c. the light and the microscope are co-axial in 
    retroillumination

d. lateral illumination is best for visualizing the anterior
    capsule

e. diffuse illumination is best for visualizing iris atrophy
 


 
 

14. The Hruby lens:
a. is a powerful biconcave lens

b. gives a virtual, erect and diminished image

c. is useful for laser photocoagulation of the retina

d. requires a coupling solution in order to visualize 
    the retina

e. forms retinal image between the lens the observer
 


 
 

15. Regarding the indirect lens
a. 90D has a larger angular magnification than a 78D

b. 90D has a larger field of view than a 78D lens

c. superfield has a larger angular magnification than a 78D

d. panfundoscope gives a larger field of view than a 90D

e. panfundoscope gives a real erect image
 


 
 

16. The optical pachymeter (pachometer):
a. can be used to measure the corneal thickness as well as
    the anterior chamber depth

b. uses images I and II of Purkinje-Sanson's images to
    measure the corneal thickness

c. is more precise than ultrasound pachymeter

d. gives a larger corneal thickness in the early morning 
    than in the afternoon

e. can be used to decide if the ocular pressure recorded is
    spuriously high
 

 
17. The OCT (optical coherence tomography):
a. uses reflection of infrared light to obtain retinal image

b. provides a three-dimensional picture of the retina

c. can give resolution as small as 10 micrometer

d. can be used to detect subtle macular oedema

e. can be used instead of fluorescein angiography in 
    deciding if a diabetic patient requires macular laser
 


 
 

18. Regarding the autorefractors:
a. which are currently available on the market show large 
    variation in accuracy

b. Schiener double-pinhole principle are used in all 
    modern autorefractors

c. modern autorefractors are useful in checking binocular 
    muscle balance

d. accommodation and the size of the pupil can affect the 
    accuracy

e. photoscreening uses a polaroid camera to screen 
   children at risk of refractive amblyopia
 

 
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