3. The sclera:
a. is thickest just posterior to limbus
b. is thinnest just posterior to the insertions of the rectus muscles
c. becomes transparent if the water content decreases
d. is mainly composed of regular arranged collagen fibres
e. forms the lamina cribrosa
4. The inferior rectus muscle:
a. is attached to the lower eyelid
b. its insertion is 6.5 mm behind limbus
c. is innervated from its inferior surface
d. passes forward and medially across the orbit
e. lies inferior to the inferior oblique muscle
5. The vitreous:
a. is a hydrogel with a water content of over 98%
b. its gel properties are provided by a network of collagen fibres
c. is firmly attached to the periphery of the macula
d. has a relatively high concentration of hyaluronic acid
e. is kept transparent by a high retinal concentration of ascorbic
acid
maintaining an electrostatic orientation of the collagen
fibrils
6. The optic nerve;
a. is invaginated by the hyaloid artery in the 5th month of
embryonal life
b. has a a sheath of dura
c. is myelinated only as far forward as the optic foramen
d. retains the macular derived fibres in its centre until the optic
chiasm
e. gets all its blood form branches of the ophthalmic artery
7. The trabecular meshwork:
a. acts as a filter and an one-way valve
b. is opened by contraction of the medional component of the ciliary
muscle
c. uses a giant vacuole system for bulk flow transport of aqueous
d. is made up of a framework of collagen
e. is posterior to the scleral spur
8. The ciliary ganglion:
a. is located between the optic nerve and the medial rectus
muscle
b. receives a sympathetic root
c. has a motor root from the nerve to the inferior oblique muscle
d. is a parasympathetic relay ganglion for fibres form the
Edinger-Westphal nucleus
e. carries fibres that innervate the sphincter pupillae
9. The levator palpebrae superioris muscle:
a. originates from the lesser wing of sphenoid
b. inserts into the pretarsal portion of the orbicularis oculi muscle
c. is separated from the roof of the orbit by the sixth cranial nerve
and the frontal nerves
d. raises the upper eyelid by 20mm
e. pierces through the orbital septum 1mm above tarsal plate
10. The internal acoustic meatus:
a. is 1 cm long
b. the seventh cranial nerve runs in it
c. is closed medially by a perforated bony plate
d. leads to the middle cranial fossa
e. lies in the petrous temporal bone
11. Structures going through foramina:
a. the ophthalmic artery runs through the optic foramen
b. the deep petrosal nerve runs through the foramen spinosum
c. the oculomotor nerve runs through the supraorbital fissure
d. the accessory nerve runs through the infraorbital fissure
e. the second division of the trigeminal nerve runs through
the foramen ovale
12. The nasociliary nerve supplies:
a. the sphenoidal sinus
b. the ethmoidal sinus
c. the dilator pupillae muscle
d. the cornea
e. the lacrimal sac
13. The pterygopalatine fossa:
a. communicates with the orbit through the supraorbital fissure
b. contains the maxillary nerve
c. is bounded superiorly by the lesser wing of sphenoid
d. contains the maxillary artery
e. sympathetic supply from plexus around internal carotid artery
14. The hyaloid artery:
a. is a branch of the dorsal ophthalmic artery
b. may persist in Bergmeisters papilla
c. forms a a vascular plexus with the tunica vasculosus lentis
d. regresses after birth
e. communicates freely with the choroidal vessels throughout
development
15. The internal carotid artery:
a. arises at the lower border of the thyroid cartilage
b. lies initially lateral to the external carotid artery
c. runs through the foramen spinosum
d. runs along the medial wall of the cavernous sinus
e. is in the cavernous sinus accompanied by a plexus of
postganglionic sympathetic fibres
16. Concerning the optic stalk:
a. at 5 weeks the axons of the retinal ganglion cells pass
into the stalk
b. myelination starts at the optic nerve reaching the chiasm by 7
months
c. the primary optic nerve head is formed by neuroectodermal cells
of the inner layer of the optic cup
d. myelin is composed of oligodendrocytes
e. the axons reach the optic tract by about 7 weeks
17. The lens:
a. is formed by neural crest tissue
b. the disc becomes a vesicle of a single cell layer a few days
c. The Y suture is inverted anteriorly
d. the embryonic nucleus has no sutures
e. the capsule is secreted by the zonules
18. The following structures are of ectodermal origin:
a. the retina and its RPE
b. the pigment epithelium covering the ciliary process
c. iris stroma
d. the sphincter and dilator pupillae muscle
e. the ciliary muscle
19. Embryology:
a. myelination of the optic nerve starts at the lamina cribrosa
b. the sphincter pupillae is of ectodermal origin
c. the primary lens fibres arise from the anterior part of the lens
vesicle
d. the ciliary body epithelium is of mesodermal origin
e. the cornea derives form the neural crest.
20. The cornea is
a. 50um thick centrally
b. contains 500 goblet cells / mm3
c. has an acellular collagenous stroma
d. is of ectodermal origin exclusively
e. the horizontal diameter is greater than the vertical diameter
21. The facial nerve:
a. its nucleus is in the floor of the fourth ventricle
b. its fibres reach the surface of the brain in the cerebellopontine
angle
c. transmits taste fibres for the anterior half of the tongue
d. gives the deep petrosal nerve as a branch of the sphenopalatine
ganglion
e. supplies the lacrimal gland with secretomotor fibres via the
zygomatic and temporal branches.
22. In the head and neck:
a. the lymph form the upper lid drains to the parotid and
submandibular lymph nodes
b. the facial nerve comes from the first pharyngela arch
c. branches of the opthahlmic diviison of the trigeminal nerve supply
the skin of the scalp as far backward as the vertex
d. the veins of the scalp are connected to both the diploid veins and
the intracranial venous sinuses
e. an unilateral cleft lip is a failure fo the maxillary process to
fuse
with the medial nasal process
23. The posterior connections f the ciliary ganglion are:
a. the short ciliary nerves
b. the long ciliary nerves
c. the motor root
d. the sensory root
e. the sympathetic root
24. The cornea:
a. has anterior surface of cubical epithelium
b. contains Bowman's layer which forms the basement membrane of
the epithelium
c. is supplied by the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
d. has connective tissue cells between the lamellae of the substantia
propria
e. its endothelium is a single layer of flattened cells
25. The infraorbital nerve:
a. passes through the supraorbital fissure
b. is a branch of the ophthalmic division of the trigeminal nerve
c. supplies teeth and upper lip
d. is of clinical importance in a fracture of the orbit
e. has mixed sensory and motor fibres
26. The optic chiasm:
a. the internal carotid artery is an immediate lateral relation
b. the maxillary bodies are immediately posterior to it
c. is inferior to the medial root of the olfactory tract
d. is in close relation to the oculomotor nerve below
e. forms the floor of the recess fo the third ventricle.
27. The blood supply to the retrolaminar portion of the optic nerve includes:
a. the circle of Zinn and Haller
b. the long posterior ciliary arteries
c. the dural branches of the ophthalmic artery
d. the short posterior ciliary arteries
e. the central retinal artery
28. The inferior oblique muscle:
a. lies between the inferior rectus muscle and the globe
b. lies between the lateral rectus muscle and the globe
c. has an intortional effect
d. gets its blood supply rom the infraorbital artery
e. has no elevating effect in abduction
29. In the lids:
a. the glands of Moll are modified sebaceous glands
b. the tarsal plate contains fibrocartilage
c. the preauricular nodes drains the lateral two thirds of the upper
lid
d. has no subcutaneous fat
e. the Horner's muscle originates from the anterior lacrimal crest
30. Gram negative rods causing ocular disease are:
a. proteus vulgaris
b. serratia marcescans
c. haemophilus influenza
d. moraxella lacunata
e. pseudomonas aeruginosa
31. In a Gram stain of a corneal scraping:
a. a Gram negative diplococci is likely to be Pseudomonas
b. in case of Gram negative bacilli aminoglycoside is the antibiotic
of
choice
c. a negative stain means that it is sterile
d. in case of Gram positive cocci chloramphenicol qds can be given
e. a Gram negative bacillus is likely to be Moraxella
32. The following drugs are hepatotoxic:
a. penicillin
b. rifampicin
c. gentamicin
d. ketaconazole
e. acyclovir
33. Disinfection:
a. aims at the removal of all viable microbes
b. is best performed before cleaning contaminated items
c., is directed at diminishing the identified risk of infection
d. is often achieved by washing items in hot water only
e. is dependent on exposure time
34. Recognized virulence factors include:
a. the capsular polysaccharides in Haemophilus influenzae
b. Ig A proteases
c. lactamses
d. gonoccal pili
e. streptococcal M protein
35. Concerning the growth of micro-organisms:
a. yeasts multiply by binary fission
b. chlamydia is an obligate intracellular parasite
c. mycobacteria are facultative intracellular parasites
d. growth of several viruses in tissue cultures can be determined by
immunofluorescence before the development of cytopathic
effects
e. medically important protozoa cannot be grown in vitro
36. Ig G:
a. is the most abundant Ig in serum
b. can fix complement
c. crosses the placenta
d. is the principal Ig in tears and saliva
e. binds and sensitizes mast cells
37. .Staphylococcus pyogenes:
a. produces a coagulase which requires calcium to clot plasma
b. causes tissue necrosis by alpha toxin production
c. is a commensal in the anterior half of the nose in 50% of the
population
38. Culture media:
a. thyoglycollate broth is suitable for facultative anaerobes
b. chocolate agar broth is suitable for Gram negative coccus
39. Ig A:
a. is the heaviest immunoglobulin
b. is secreted in breast milk
c. is secreted in the lacrimal gland
40. Secretions of lymphocytes
41. Germ cell tumours
42. Parotid gland anatomy
43. anatomy of sympathetic trunk
44. Macrophage and granuloma
45. Basal cell carcinoma